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369 Terms

1
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what is a function of bile

emulsification of fat

2
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what does amylase digest

starches

3
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what secretes sucrase

the small intestine

4
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what digests proteins

trypsin

5
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a prokaryote is a cell that

lacks a true membrane bound nucleus and organelles

6
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do veins and lymphatic vessels contain valves

yes

7
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what are the four primary body tissues

muscle
nervous
epithelial
connective

8
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by what means do oxygen and carbo dioxide enter and exit the cell

diffusion

9
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what is the main function of microvilli in an absorptive cell

they increase surface area

10
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which chemical constituent in urine is the result of fatty acid catabolism

acetone

11
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which erythrocyte finding is commonly caused by an iron deficiency

hypochromasia

12
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which term describes cells that have sharp, evenly spaced projections around the margin and often appear as the result of slow drying the blood film

crenation

13
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which teardrop shaped, paired intracellular parasite is a piroplasmid protozoan of mammals

babesia spp

14
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under a microscope a tech sees a collection of wbcs with variable nuclear shapes, diffuse chromatin, and blue gray cytoplasm with some vacuoles- which type of cell is this

monocyte

15
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clear colorless rereactive cast composed of mucoprotein or plasma protein, cylindrical with relatively symmetrical sides and rounded ends

hyaline casts

16
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rbcs in urine is called

hematuria

17
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not reliable test for usg

reagent test strips

18
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precursor to erythrocyte

prorubricyte

19
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term that describes variation in the size of rbcs

anisocytosis

20
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what is an exogenous substance in qualitative or semiqualitative urinalysis

creatine clearance

21
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ptx urine specimen is yellow brown to greenish and foams when shake - what is likely present in the ptx urine

bile pigments

22
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describe pollakiuria

frequent urination

23
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define polyuria

formation/excretion of large volumes of urine

24
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cats urine is coludy yet tests indicate it is norma -l which is the most likely cause of the cloudy apperance

fat

25
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most likely cause of physiological thrombocytosis

movement of platelets from the storage pools (spleen) as a result of stress and exercise

26
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what strategy must be avoided in conducting leukocyte evaluation and differentiation

include feathered edge counting

27
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iron deficit and decreased MCHC, increased central pallor- what is the most likely rbc morphology for this patient

hypochromasia

28
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what is mange

mite infestation

29
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for which diagnosis is the baermann tech most useful

lungworm larvae

30
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dipylidium caninum is zoonotic

true

31
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common name for toxascaris leonina

roundworm

32
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intermediate host for dipylidium caninum

flea

33
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describe the taenia spp ova

dark brown and nearly spherical with striations evident

34
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best tech for detecting giardia

centrifugal floatation technique

35
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describe a trematode

fluke or flatworm in the platyhelminthic family

36
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what parasite is the same as sheep hookworm

nematodirus

37
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feline flea scientific name

ctenocephalides canis

38
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what is true about the passive floatation technique

floatation solution must have a higher specific gravity than that of the parasitic material

39
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what is true of cryptosporidium detection

with modified acid fast stains, the oocysts stain bright red to fuchsia pink and measure 4-5 mm in diameter

40
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what is the best way to preserve parasitic samples for shipping to lab

send fresh of mixed at a ratio of 1-3 with 10% formalin

41
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what test involves centrifuging a blood filled microhematocrit tube for 3 mins after eval of a pcv and before tp eval

buffy coat method

42
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what step is the most useful in conducting a skin scraping to test for the presence of cheyletiella

hold and scrape the skin superficially to collect loose samples and crust

43
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cat shows signs of bronchitis, including blood and mucus detected in brnchioles, float reveals rough granualar thick walled barrel shaped straw colored eggs with asymmetrical bipolar plugs- what is the diagnosis

eucoleus aerophilus

44
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what is measured in a liver function profile

total bilirubin
AP
TP

45
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what is a byproduct of muscle metabolism that is produced at a constant rate and filtered out almost entirely by the glomeruli

creatinine

46
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what test is based on feeding of a high fat meal after obtaining the fasted blood sample

bile acids

47
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what pair of electrolytes have one mineral that is negatively charged and the other positively charged

calcium and phosphorus

48
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what enzymes is considered a liver specific enzyme in dogs and cats

alanine aminotransferase

49
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what is the anticoagulant of choice for collecting samples for electrolyte determination

lithium heparin (green top)

50
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what is not usually viewed as an electrolyte though it does carry an electrical charge

bicarbonate

51
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what condition is commonly associated with acute pancreatitis

chronic hyperlipidemia

52
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what is the function of trypsin-like immunoreactivity (TLI)

highly specific assay for canine exocrine pancreatic insufficiency

53
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12 yr F feline with increased levels of PLI - what percent sensitivity for pancreatitis does this indicate

80%

54
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describe the nature of the conjugated form of bilirubin

it is found mainly as a glucuronic acid

55
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what blood content is measured using total dye binding in an automated serum analyzer (assessing liver function in a dehydrated cow)

TS/TP

56
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what condition is rare to see except in cases of dehydration

hypernatremia

57
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with what condition can hypophosphatemia be seen

hyperinsulinism

58
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you must obtain a blood sample to measure oxygenation levels - what step is most important

obtain blood from an artery

59
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what is a common neoplasm seen in cats

renal lymphosarcoma

60
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technique used when cells are forced into the hub of the needle from the pressure of the punctur e

capillary technique in a FNB

61
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infections with histoplasma or balantidium organisms are commonly identified using what

rectal mucosal scraping

62
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a surgeon removes a sample from an external lesion for multiple imprints analysis - what is the best way to prepare this cytologic specimen for examination

tzanck method

-- before cleaning, after cleaning, after debridement and after removal of any scabs

63
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what condition is characterized by the presence of cells with prominent dark black granules

melanoma

64
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microscopic exam of skin scraping sample shows presence of infectious gram-positive cocci within a group of phagocytic cells - what would the infectious agent be

staphylococcus

65
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example of a noninflammatory , nonneoplastic lesion

hematoma

66
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what is simonsiella

normal oral flora

67
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what is an epithelial cell tumor that usually exfoliates in clusters of cells

carcinoma

68
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a transtracheal wash reveals curschmann spirals from the small bronchioles indicating chronic bronchiolar problem - what do these spirals look like

eosinophilic, spiral mucus casts

69
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what is a mesenchymal cell tumor that usually exfoliates single cells

sarcoma

70
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what is the most unusual finding in exam of ear canal secretions

neoplasia

71
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what stain is used specifically for determining the presence of nucleated cells, bacteria, fungi, and mast cells

NMB

72
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what is the correct term for a condensed neutrophil nucleus

pyknosis

73
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describe a mesothelial cell

cytoplasm is slightly basophilic and may contain phagocytic debris

74
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best classification for a cytology sample that contains a few macrophages and greater than 85% neutrophils

purulent

75
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what power can be used to determine predominant cell types but not to describe cellular characteristics

high power 400x

76
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best magnification for assessing wave motion in sperm

40x mag

77
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during collection of a punch biopsy specimen taken from the surface of the skin which step comes first

blot a paper towel

78
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what stains are used in assessing sperm morphology

nigrosin and eosin

79
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what is an abnormal finding in mammary cytology

foam cells
- secretory epithelial cells

80
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wha is a normal finding in the bone marrow eval of a young colt

25% fat

81
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in bone marrow which cells usualy account for 80% to 90% of the erythroid cells

rubricytes and metarubricytes

82
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thoracocentesis in cat is determined to caontain an increased number of lymphocytes - what does this indicate

lymphosarcoma

83
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sample from a thoracic effusion indicates an inflammatory disorder - which cells most likely predominate in this sample

neutrophils

84
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what is the goal of streaking for isolation

obtain bacterial colonies that are isolated from each other so they can be identified

85
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what are goals of salmonella-shigella agar

select pathogenic enteric bacteria

differentiate on the basis of lactose fermentation

differentiate on the basis of hydrogen sulfide production

86
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what cannot be used to sterilize a bacteriology loop

an incubator

87
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what is true of campylobacter spp

can be presumptively identified on a gram stain by their shape

require a microaerophilic environment to grow

88
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a lactose fermenting bacterial colony is what on macconkey agar

purple

89
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a bacterium that grows only on the TSA/blood agar plate is what

a fastidious organism

90
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what provides ideal conditions for growing fungal cultures

room temp, in a dark environment

91
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what test is used on all gram positive cocci to differentiate btwn staphylococcus and streptococcus which are catalase negative

catalse test

92
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why are all media plates incubated upside down

to prevent condensation from dripping onto cultures

93
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lab tech needs to grow only gram neg organisms - what type of media will be mostly helpful

selective media

94
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what agar is referred to as blood agar plate

trypticase soy agar with 5% sheeps blood (TSA)

95
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what tube media is a broth used to bring bacteria to a certain turbidity level when performing diffusion antibiotic sensitivity testing

brain heart infusion (BHI)

96
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what body area when healty is nonsterile - that is it contains resident bacteria and fungi (normal flora) that must be distinguished from disease-causing organisms

upper respiratory tract

97
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what is a sterile abscess

an abscess that has no bacterial cause and whose culture will result in no growth

98
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which swab is generally considered more appropriate for anaerobic specimens

gel containing swab

99
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what tube media is a sterile solution used for diluting gram negative bacteria for API identification testing

sodium chloride 0.85%

(NaCl 0/85%)

100
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the lid pops off a blood specimen from a horse 6 days after inoculation - what is most likely the cause

sample has produced anaerobic, gas producing bacteria

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